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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 00:50

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why do very skinny girls get more male attention if it is true that men like curves?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why is the First Amendment referred to as a right to free speech instead of an immunity from punishment for one's words, regardless of their truthfulness?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

How do I convince my husband that a threesome is okay?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.